Critics of Freudian theory should get themselves psychoanalysed, because opposition to the theory is itself caused by an unconscious resistance arising from the Oedipal complex, which according to Freud distorts one's thinking. Which logical fallacy is committed in the above argument?

The argument presupposes the very Freudian theory it is meant to defend, so it begs the question.

It claims opposition to Freud springs from an unconscious Oedipal resistance that distorts thought.

But that claim is true only if Freudian theory is already accepted as correct.

Thus the conclusion that critics are mistaken is smuggled in among the premises.

Assuming what one is trying to prove is the fallacy of petitio principii.