Statement: No man is infallible. Which inference is correct?
1.All men are fallible
2.No infallible person is a man
AOnly inference I is correct
BOnly inference II is correct
CBoth inferences I and II are correct ✓ Correct
DNeither inference I nor II is correct
Correct answer: (C) Both inferences I and II are correct
Explanation
Both immediate inferences validly follow from "No man is infallible."
Obverting the statement changes it to "All men are non-infallible," that is, fallible.
Since infallible and fallible are exact contradictories, Statement 1 is secured.
The original is a universal negative, and such a proposition converts simply.
Converting gives "No infallible being is a man," which is Statement 2.
Obversion and conversion are both valid immediate inferences on an E proposition.
Want more like this? Create a free account to practise a full test, track your progress, and get spaced-repetition review.
Practise on Mcqkart →🎓 Book an expert →